Friday, May 03, 2013

The P.I.E. metaphor - 2

On dailykos.com alevei continued:

In my previous post, I wrote about coming to terms with the metaphorical nature of Proto-Indo-European (PIE), which may or may not ever have existed as an actual language spoken by actual people at an actual moment in time but that is posited to be the common ancestor of most of the languages of Europe and many in western and central Asia.

To recap, the gist of that post is that the Indo-European hypothesis is large and contains multitudes and that the options seem to be to accept the astonishing inexactness of the metaphors or submit to the paralyzing mind-blowingness of what we use them to try to explain. I suggested that the latter option could be inconvenient if you're trying to discuss historical linguistics and language relatedness in a class that meets for an hour and fifty minutes twice a week for 15 weeks.

Anyway, continuing on the topic of the metaphors that we use to try to create some kind of manageable order out of the chaos that is the story of human language and how it got this way, we turn now to a fellow name of August Schleicher (1821-1868), a German linguist by training and profession who specialized in classical and Slavic languages. Schleicher, who may have had some of the same concerns that I have about how we can possibly even try to conceptualize an unattested 5,000 to 7,000-year-old super-ancestor Ur-language that might not even have actually existed, decided that it was time someone got around to the task of trying to reconstruct Proto-Indo-European.
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....Anyway, in 1861, Schleicher published his reconstruction of PIE in a book called Compendium der Vergleichenden Grammatik der Indogermanischen Sprachen, known in English (and available in translation here) as A Compendium of the Comparative Grammar of the Indo-European Languages. Revisions and reissues appeared well into the 1870s, although Schleicher himself died in 1868 at age 47.

"What does all this have to do with metaphors?" you might be thinking. Everything. It has everything to do with metaphors. For one thing, even as Schleicher published his reconstruction of a 5- to 7,000-year-old dead language that might not have existed in the first place, he also made it clear that he knew all along that he was dealing in metaphors, and particularly in a big PIE-shaped metaphor, one that made it possible for him to reconstruct what was quite possibly a mythical language. As he wrote in the Compendium in 1861 (although of course he actually wrote it in German):
"A form traced back to the sound-grade of the Indo-European original language, we call a fundamental form. When we bring forward these fundamental forms, we do not assert that they really were once in existence." (Emphasis added.)

Comments (19)

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What is the author's point? What is your point? If either of you is claiming that the relationships among the languages that we see is *not* due to a common origin then I have to say that vague mumblings about metaphors won't cut it. These kinds of structural similarities being accidental is approximately as likely as the identity of the genetic code between humans and bacteria being accidental.
3 replies · active 625 weeks ago
The point is very simple - the reconstructed proto-language, whether P.I.E., or proto-Greek, is something that likely never existed. It doesn't mean that later languages did not evolve from common earlier ancestral languages; it means our reconstruction into a single proto-language is only a metaphor for the set of common earlier ancestral languages. E.g., if you think that Indo-European languages originated in some region of Central Asia, then Proto-Indo-European is some kind of temporal and spatial "averaging" of the actual languages spoken in that region.
I don't think that's really a metaphor - that is, a figure of speech comparing two unlike things. It's really a rejection of the notion of a common ancestral language. PIE is not a metaphor, but a hypothesis. Our author wishes to dispute it but is unwilling to challenge it directly. Pre literate languages arise in speaking communities. Blending of such speaking communities arises only under exceptional circumstances. Before global communications, languages seem to have *always* been spread by movement of peoples and conquest. There are many examples (Polynesian, Arabic, Latin, English, Spanish) and few if any exceptions.
Wow, CIP knows what hypothesis means. When it comes to religion, he confuses definitions with hypothesis. Some improvement!!
Hey CIP, do you even read what you type? "These kinds of structural similarities being accidental is approximately as likely..." Your assertion is based on assumption that the evolution of languages resembles biological evolution (which again is something you know zilch about). What's the author's point? Read him and try to understand what he is saying rather than reacting in thoughtless fury.
1 reply · active 625 weeks ago
OK, Guest, I am bored, so I will engage you. You seem to be putting yourself forward as some sort of linguistic expert, but you don't provide specifics of either your arguments or your qualifications. I don't pretend to be an expert in comparative lingiusitics but I have read a number of books and papers on the subject but my argument is not based on any pretended authority or analogy, but on logic. The familial relationships of languages require explanation. One explanation is common origin. What is the alternative? One can imagine some sorts of exchange arrangements where groups swap around language elements until some commonality is achieved, but we don't see much of this even in the modern world with instant communications, and we don't know of any primitive tribes or civilizations that do this.

What we do see is a pattern of systematic divergence over space and time. This closely mimics the behavior of languages in the historical era and other situations (see my comment to Arun) where point type origins can be clearly identified.

Aside from the fact that the "metaphor" argument seems to misuse the word, it feels like another political scheme to make linguistic history fit an improbable hypothesis.
Arun, you should charge CIP tuition for patiently schooling him.
1 reply · active 625 weeks ago
Go to sleep. The adults are trying to have a conversation.
"You haven't read a number of books and papers on the subject but pretend to be an expert in comparative lingiusitics..." There, I switched the "but". That's you. Not content to mess around with anthropolgy, language and history you're now straying into biology. Very amusing
"Familial relationship" is pop biology and nonsense. Similarities do not necessarily indicate "familial relationship"
You are saying that the shark and the whale are related. Nice try.
4 replies · active 624 weeks ago
Similarties, in and of them themselves, don't prove much, since one can always find similarities in one description (one theory), dissimilarities in another description (another theory).

When it comes to language speeds, you can always find similarities. One can always derive word X from word Y with some ingenuity. For instance, one can use "fronting, backing, lowering, highering" to transform any vowel to any other vowel. Similarly, one use fronting and backing for consonants. Then one can use a quasi-lowering to change a stop consonant to an approximant, then to fricative.

The problem is not so much about hypothesis. Every human can form any hypothesis. What is the explanatory power, whetehr it is adhoc or etc. Maybe, CIP can chime in the latter aspects instead of saying that it is a hypothesis.
Dear Guess,

Of course the whale and shark are related, and rather closely at that. Of course not so closely as the whale and the trout, much less as closely as the whale and the hippo.

Similarites can arise from several causes, and the large superficial similarities of shark and whale arise from adaptation to an environment where there is a big premium on streamlining. Other similarities, like those between the reproductive system of whale and baboon, for example, arise from common ancestry.

There is little evidence of the kind of environmental constraint that produce streamlining in ocean denizens in language, so when similarities vastly exceed statistical plausibility, common ancestry is the go to hypothesis. As I have noted elsewhere, there is ample confirmatory evidence in the internals of language and the history of human migrations.
I wonder if crow in various languages begins with ka- , from universally observed cawing. That would be a convergent force in linguistics, no?
Some onomatopoetic words might be convergent. But there are too many coincidences in IE languages to be explained that way.
It just means that the common ancestor language (obviously) does not exist any more and any modern day projections back in time(applying all that is known about it) to that common ancestor language will not result in a language which was actually spoken.

In other words, the subset of 'common ancestor language elements and characteristics' which are labelled 'common ancestor language' are only symbolic representation of the 'common ancestor language' and not real.

This does not imply such a common ancestor language did not exist - it just means we probably cannot recreate it using its linguistic descendants.
P.I.E. is constructed using certain observed and certain hypothesized regularities in changes of sounds of spoken language The problem is that there is no clock attached to these changes and no geographical markers, and the evolution of the supposed single proto-language into its descendants took place over a huge geography and a long period of time.

In a particular case, that of ancient Greek, the P.I.E. type reconstruction leads to something that demonstrably did not exist (as demonstrable as possible given the nature of the records we have) - and this took place in a limited geography and a smaller time depth.

Therefore, just as the sea of grief in which he drowned is metaphorical, so is P.I.E.
http://www.washingtonpost.com/national/health-sci...

Linguists identify 15,000-year-old ‘ultraconserved words’
1 reply · active 625 weeks ago
Interesting. But unless we are able to use a time machine this will always remain conjecture.
In science, a hypothesis graduates from conjectural status when the evidence accumulates. The common proto-language of 15,000 years ago rests on a tiny number of words, but that's enough to give it plausibility. PIE rests not only on thousands of words but on conservered grammatical elements and documented rules of transformation. We have little hope of establishing anything to match that for the 15 K proto-language but not quite no hope.

The biggest clues are likely to come from widespread sequencing of genetic types, which will clarify the movement of peoples.
1 reply · active 624 weeks ago
A precept that becomes very clear from machine learning is that the data set from which a plausible hypothesis is arrived at cannot also prove that hypothesis. You need additional data for that. Or else you need to do what physics does and demonstrate a causal mechanism. Neither is likely in the case of the 15,000 year old proto-language hypothesis.

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